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NEW QUESTION # 127
Which of the following statements about capital gains distributions from mutual fund trusts is correct?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, capital gains distributions are the portion of the mutual fund trust's net realized capital gains that are paid out to the unitholders. Capital gains distributions are not the same as capital gains from selling or redeeming units of the mutual fund trust, which are reported on a T5008 slip. Capital gains distributions are taxable in the year they are received, even if they are reinvested in additional units of the fund. The mutual fund trust will issue a T3 slip to report the amount and type of income that is allocated to each unitholder, including capital gains distributions. The unitholder must report this income on their tax return and pay tax on 50% of the capital gains distributions at their marginal tax rate.
References: 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)
NEW QUESTION # 128
Which of the following best describes how a target date fund works?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
This is because a target date fund is designed to reduce the risk and volatility of the portfolio as the investor gets closer to their retirement or other savings goal. Equities tend to have higher returns but also higher risk than fixed income, so a target date fund gradually reduces the exposure to equities and increases the exposure to fixed income over time. This way, the investor can benefit from the growth potential of equities in the early years and preserve their capital with the stability of fixed income in the later years.
NEW QUESTION # 129
Quinton, a Dealing Representative, meets with his client Banji. Banji's Know Your Client (KYC) indicates that her risk profile is "medium''. Banji currently has $35,000 in her account which is invested 50% in the Middleton Balanced Fund and 50% in the Hector Growth Fund. She tells Quinton that she would like to contribute an additional $10,000 to purchase the Prospect Labour-Sponsored Fund. Which of the following statements about Banji's proposed transaction is CORRECT?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A labour-sponsored investment fund (LSIF) is a type of mutual fund that invests in small and medium-sized businesses that are not publicly traded. LSIFs are sponsored by labour unions or associations and offer tax credits to investors. However, LSIFs are also very risky and illiquid investments that may not be suitable for investors with a medium risk profile, such as Banji. Therefore, Quinton should not proceed with the purchase of the Prospect Labour-Sponsored Fund because it is not suitable for Banji based on her current KYC.
Therefore, C is the correct answer. References: Labour-Sponsored Investment Funds (LSIFs): Definition and How They Work - Investopedia, Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute
NEW QUESTION # 130
Your clients, Philip and Helen, have a disabled son, Alex, age 22. They want to set up a registered disability savings plan (RDSP) for Alex and have asked you for some information.
Which statement is TRUE?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A registered disability savings plan (RDSP) is a savings plan intended to help parents and others save for the long-term financial security of a person who is eligible for the disability tax credit (DTC). The DTC is a non-refundable tax credit that helps persons with disabilities or their supporting persons reduce the amount of income tax they may have to pay. To be eligible for the DTC, a person must have a severe and prolonged impairment in physical or mental functions, as defined by the Income Tax Act and as certified by a medical practitioner. Therefore, Alex must qualify for the DTC in order to be eligible for an RDSP. References: What is a registered disability savings plan (RDSP) - Canada.ca, Disability tax credit - Canada.ca
NEW QUESTION # 131
If an investor was looking for an investment with a risk equal to that of the market, which factor would she want in an investment?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Beta is a measure of the systematic risk of an investment, which is the risk that is related to the movements of the market as a whole. Beta compares the volatility of an investment to the volatility of the market. A beta of 1 means that the investment has the same level of risk as the market, and it tends to move in the same direction and magnitude as the market. A beta of 0 means that the investment has no correlation with the market, and it is unaffected by market fluctuations. A beta greater than 1 means that the investment is more risky than the market, and it tends to amplify the market movements. A beta less than 1 means that the investment is less risky than the market, and it tends to dampen the market movements. Therefore, if an investor was looking for an investment with a risk equal to that of the market, she would want a beta of 1. References:
* Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 4: Mutual Funds, Section 4.5: Risk and Return of Mutual Funds, page 4-231
* Beta Definition - Investopedia2
NEW QUESTION # 132
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